Jason Hunt - Bushcraft Hygiene & Wilderness First Aid - Certification Course

1. What does WFA stand for?

A) Wildland First Action

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B) Wilderness Fracture Aid

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C) Wilderness First Aid

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D) Wilderness Fire Assistance

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2. What is the primary rule of Wilderness First Aid?

A) Call for Help Immediately

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B) Do No Harm

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C) Always Evacuate

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D) Save Yourself First

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3. How does WFA differ from Standard First Aid?

A) It assumes quick EMS access

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B) It uses more specialized equipment

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C) It focuses only on urban settings

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D) It prepares for prolonged care with limited resources

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4. What is the first of the 12 C’s of Survival?

A) Combustion Devices

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B) Cutting Tools

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C) Cordage

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D) Containers

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5. Which legal principle protects you when aiding someone in good faith?

A) Informed Consent

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B) Duty to Act

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C) Good Samaritan Laws

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D) Reasonable Man Doctrine

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6. What’s a key way to reduce a patient’s anxiety in a remote setting?

A) Ignore their fears to stay focused

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B) Explain your actions clearly

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C) Speak loudly to assert control

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D) Move quickly without talking

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7. What does BSI stand for in the context of infectious disease precautions?

A) Bleeding Stop Initiative

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B) Body Substance Isolation

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C) Bandage Securely In place

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D) Basic Safety Instruction

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8. What makes this WFA course unique compared to others?

A) It relies on items typically in an outdoorsman’s pack

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B) It requires professional medical training

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C) It uses industry-standard medical kits

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D) It focuses only on urban emergencies

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9. Under what conditions are you legally obligated to help a stranger?

A) If you witness an accident

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B) If you’re an off-duty first responder

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C) If you’re a civilian with no training

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D) If you have a “Duty to Act” as a licensed professional

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10. What’s an example of improvising Universal Precautions in the wild?

A) Using a plastic bag as a glove

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B) Applying a tourniquet without gloves

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C) Waiting for proper PPE

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D) Ignoring blood exposure

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11. What’s the first question to ask when approaching a patient?

A) “Can you walk?”

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B) “What happened?”

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C) “Do you need help?”

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D) “Where’s your kit?”

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12. What’s the most important concept in a scene survey?

A) Safety of the rescuer

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B) Speed of response

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C) Silence to hear the patient

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D) Signaling for help

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13. What does MOI stand for?

A) Manual Operation Instruction

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B) Movement of Illness

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C) Mechanism of Injury

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D) Method of Intervention

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14. Why is understanding MOI important?

A) It helps predict injury type and severity

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B) It speeds up evacuation

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C) It determines patient mood

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D) It predicts weather changes

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15. When should you attempt a rescue?

A) If the patient is conscious

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B) Only if it’s safe for you

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C) Always, to save the patient

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D) If you have professional gear

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16. What’s the goal of moving a patient to a neutral anatomical position?

A) To stop bleeding

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B) To check their pulse

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C) To speed up their breathing

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D) To make them more comfortable and ready for evacuation

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17. Which position protects the airway for a patient with no serious injuries?

A) Prone

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B) Recovery

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C) Neutral Anatomical

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D) Sitting Upright

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18. What’s an example of an emergency move condition?

A) A patient with a minor cut

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B) A stable patient with a sprain

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C) A patient in a wildfire zone

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D) A patient waiting for evacuation

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19. What’s a key feature of a helicopter landing zone?

A) Sloped terrain

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B) 100’ x 100’ clear of wires

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C) 50’ x 50’ with trees

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D) Near water sources

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20. What type of smoke is best for signaling in light terrain?

A) Gray

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B) White

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C) Black

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D) Blue

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21. What’s the purpose of the Primary Survey?

A) To clean wounds

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B) To detect life-threatening conditions

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C) To splint fractures

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D) To take a detailed history

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22. What does the “A” in A-V-P-U stand for?

A) Awake

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B) Assess

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C) Airway

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D) Alert

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23. What’s checked first in the ABCs?

A) Airway

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B) Breathing

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C) Consciousness

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D) Circulation

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24. What’s a normal adult heart rate range?

A) 120-150 bpm

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B) 20-40 bpm

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C) 50-100 bpm

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D) 180-200 bpm

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25. What does “P” stand for in DCAP-BTLS?

A) Pulse

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B) Pressure

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C) Punctures

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D) Pain

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26. What’s included in a SAMPLE history?

A) Scene, Airway, Breathing

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B) Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications

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C) Splints, Age, Mobility

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D) Speed, Altitude, Movement

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27. How often should you reassess vital signs for an unstable patient?

A) Every 30 minutes

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B) Every 5 minutes

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C) Once an hour

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D) Every 15 minutes

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28. What’s a sign of poor circulation in capillary refill?

A) Pale after 2 seconds

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B) Pink in 1 second

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C) Blue immediately

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D) Pink in 3 seconds

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29. What body part is checked first in a physical exam?

A) Legs

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B) Abdomen

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C) Head & Neck

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D) Arms

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30. What does “S” stand for in SAMPLE?

A) Safety

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B) Shock

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C) Signs & Symptoms

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D) Splinting

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31. What’s a sign of life-threatening bleeding?

A) Minor scratch

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B) Dry wound

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C) Spurting blood

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D) Slow drip

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32. Where should a tourniquet be placed?

A) Around the neck

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B) Below the injury

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C) Directly on the wound

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D) 2-3 inches above the bleeding site

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33. What’s an abrasion?

A) A scrape with minor bleeding

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B) A deep cut

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C) A detached limb

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D) A torn flap of skin

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34. How should you clean a minor wound?

A) Use alcohol only

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B) Rub with dirt

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C) Flush with potable water

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D) Leave it dirty

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35. What’s used to close a wound in WFA instead of sutures?

A) Staples

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B) Butterfly bandages from tape

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C) Glue

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D) Thread

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36. What’s a sign of wound infection?

A) Dry surface

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B) Red streaks toward the heart

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C) Cool skin

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D) No pain

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37. How should you treat a sucking chest wound?

A) Pack it with gauze

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B) Apply a chest seal on three sides

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C) Leave it open

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D) Splint the chest

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38. What’s a superficial burn?

A) Deep tissue exposed

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B) Red, peeling skin

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C) Blistered skin

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D) Charred skin

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39. When should you evacuate a burn victim?

A) Only full-thickness burns

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B) Any burn over 5% of the body

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C) After 24 hours

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D) Minor burns on the arm

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40. What’s the first step in treating a full-thickness burn?

A) Rub with ointment

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B) Apply ice

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C) Stop the burning

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D) Pop blisters

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41. What’s the difference between a dressing and a bandage?

A) A dressing holds the bandage in place

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B) They’re the same thing

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C) A bandage is sterile; a dressing isn’t

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D) A dressing covers the wound; a bandage secures it

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42. What should you do before applying a dressing?

A) Use a dirty cloth

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B) Apply tape first

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C) Wash your hands

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D) Leave it dirty

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43. What’s a sign a bandage is too tight?

A) No pain

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B) Warm skin

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C) Blue nail beds

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D) Loose fit

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44. What can be used to improvise a dressing?

A) Mud

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B) A rock

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C) A cotton bandana

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D) A stick

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45. How should you remove a stuck dressing?

A) Dampen it first

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B) Rip it off quickly

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C) Leave it on

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D) Cut it away

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46. What’s a strain?

A) A broken bone

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B) A joint injury

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C) A pulled muscle

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D) A dislocated joint

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47. What does “R” stand for in RICE?

A) Rub

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B) Raise

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C) Rest

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D) Rotate

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48. What’s an open fracture?

A) A minor crack

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B) Bone protrudes through skin

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C) Bone breaks but stays under skin

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D) A twisted joint

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49. What’s a key feature of a good splint?

A) Flexible and thin

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B) Small and tight

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C) Hard and sharp

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D) Big, ugly, fluffy, firm (BUFF)

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50. When should you attempt to reduce a dislocation?

A) Never

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B) Only if help is delayed

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C) Immediately

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D) After splinting

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51. What’s a sign of a sprain?

A) Fever

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B) Bone sticking out

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C) Swelling and pain at a joint

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D) No movement

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52. What’s an improvised splinting resource from the 12 C’s?

A) Candling device

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B) Combustion device

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C) Cargo tape

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D) Cerate

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53. What requires rapid evacuation for a bone injury?

A) Slight strain

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B) Open fracture

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C) Minor sprain

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D) Stable dislocation

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54. What’s the purpose of splinting?

A) To immobilize above and below the injury

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B) To stop bleeding

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C) To warm the limb

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D) To reduce swelling only

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55. What’s a dislocation?

A) A closed fracture

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B) A joint out of place

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C) A stretched muscle

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D) A minor bruise

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56. What’s shock?

A) High blood pressure

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B) Too much blood flow

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C) Inadequate perfusion to organs

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D) A broken bone

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57. What’s a sign of shock?

A) Slow breathing

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B) No sweating

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C) Weak, rapid pulse

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D) Warm, dry skin

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58. What type of shock is caused by severe bleeding?

A) Cardiogenic

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B) Hypovolemic

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C) Anaphylactic

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D) Neurogenic

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59. What’s a sign of internal bleeding?

A) Warm hands

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B) Rigid abdomen

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C) Clear urine

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D) No pain

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60. How should you treat shock in the wilderness?

A) Give solid food

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B) Elevate the head

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C) Maintain core body temperature

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D) Ignore it

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61. What’s a common cause of chest pain?

A) Dehydration

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B) Muscle strain

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C) Coronary artery disease

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D) Altitude sickness

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62. What should you give a patient with chest pain?

A) Coffee

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B) Sugar

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C) Aspirin

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D) Salt water

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63. When should you evacuate a patient with chest pain?

A) After 24 hours

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B) If it’s mild

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C) Only if they faint

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D) If it lasts over 15 minutes

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64. What’s a treatment for internal bleeding?

A) Apply ice directly

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B) Raise legs 8-12 inches if alert

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C) Give solid food

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D) Lower the legs

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65. What’s cardiogenic shock caused by?

A) Blood loss

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B) Allergic reaction

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C) Heart damage

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D) Infection

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66. What’s a pneumothorax?

A) A heart attack

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B) Air in the chest

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C) Blood in the chest

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D) A broken rib

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67. What’s the only treatment for a tension pneumothorax?

A) Splinting

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B) Chest seal

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C) Immediate evacuation

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D) Pain meds

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68. How should you treat an open pneumothorax?

A) Leave it open

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B) Pack it with gauze

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C) Apply a chest seal on three sides

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D) Cover it completely

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69. What’s a treatment for asthma in the wild?

A) Cold compress

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B) Position of comfort

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C) Elevation

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D) Sugar water

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70. What’s a sign of tension pneumothorax?

A) Slow pulse

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B) Normal breathing

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C) Distended neck veins

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D) Warm skin

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71. What’s a sign of a stroke?

A) Steady arms

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B) Facial droop

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C) Normal speech

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D) Clear vision

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72. What’s the best treatment for a seizure patient post-ictal?

A) Elevate legs

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B) Give food

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C) Recovery position and rest

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D) Apply cold

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73. What’s hypoglycemia?

A) Low oxygen

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B) High blood sugar

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C) Low blood sugar

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D) High blood pressure

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74. What’s a sign of hyperglycemia?

A) Slow pulse

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B) Sweaty skin

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C) Fruity breath

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D) Shivering

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75. What’s a treatment for an unresponsive patient?

A) Leave them alone

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B) Keep warm and dry

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C) Give solid food

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D) Apply heat to feet only

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76. What’s a concussion symptom?

A) No headache

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B) Seeing stars

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C) Steady balance

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D) Full memory

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77. What’s a sign of a skull fracture?

A) Warm skin

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B) No pain

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C) Clear fluid from ears

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D) Normal pupils

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78. What’s the Cincinnati Stroke Scale used for?

A) Measuring pulse

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B) Checking fractures

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C) Diagnosing stroke

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D) Assessing burns

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79. What should you give a hypoglycemic patient?

A) Ice

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B) Water

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C) Sugar under the tongue

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D) Salt

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80. What’s a TIA?

A) Heart attack

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B) Permanent stroke

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C) Seizure

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D) Mini-stroke with recovery

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81. What’s a sign of a closed abdominal injury?

A) Protruding intestines

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B) Soft belly

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C) Rigid abdomen

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D) No pain

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82. What’s a treatment for abdominal pain?

A) Alcohol

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B) Sips of clear fluids

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C) Solid food

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D) Laxatives

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83. What’s a cause of bloody stool?

A) Cold exposure

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B) Dehydration

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C) Hemorrhoids

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D) Altitude

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84. What’s a hernia?

A) Lung collapse

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B) Broken bone

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C) Intestine protruding through abdominal wall

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D) Heart issue

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85. When should you evacuate for nausea and vomiting?

A) Only if mild

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B) After 1 hour

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C) If it persists with shock signs

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D) Never

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86. What’s anaphylactic shock?

A) Heart failure

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B) Severe allergic reaction

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C) Low blood sugar

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D) Infection

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87. What’s the primary treatment for anaphylaxis?

A) Rest

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B) Water

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C) Epinephrine

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D) Ice

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88. What’s a sign of insulin shock?

A) Warm hands

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B) Slow breathing

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C) Sweaty, faint patient

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D) Dry skin

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89. What’s ketoacidosis?

A) Bone injury

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B) Excess blood acids from high sugar

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C) Low blood sugar

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D) Lung collapse

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90. What’s a treatment for hives?

A) Sugar

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B) Antihistamines

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C) Cold water

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D) Elevation

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91. What’s a treatment for painful urination?

A) Use acidic drinks

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B) Drink plenty of water

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C) Avoid water

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D) Apply heat

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92. What’s a sign of dehydration?

A) Warm skin

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B) Clear urine

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C) Dark yellow urine

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D) No thirst

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93. What’s a symptom of kidney stones?

A) Steady pulse

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B) Severe back pain

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C) No pain

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D) Clear urine

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94. When should you evacuate for heavy menstrual bleeding?

A) After 24 hours

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B) Only if mild

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C) If it saturates a pad in 3 hours

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D) Never

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95. What’s priapism?

A) Kidney stone

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B) Painful urination

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C) Prolonged erection

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D) Hernia

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96. What’s hypothermia?

A) High blood sugar

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B) Core temp below 95°F

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C) Core temp above 101°F

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D) Dehydration

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97. What’s a sign of mild hypothermia?

A) Violent shivering

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B) No shivering

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C) Steady pulse

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D) Warm skin

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98. What’s part of a hypothermia wrap?

A) Ice packs

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B) Wet clothes

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C) 4” of insulation all around

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D) Open air exposure

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99. What’s a treatment for hyperthermia?

A) Warm blankets

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B) Cool water immersion

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C) Hot drinks

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D) Elevation

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100. What’s a sign of frostbite?

A) Hard, waxy skin

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B) Warm, soft skin

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C) Steady feeling

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D) No numbness

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101. What’s the temp range for rewarming frostbite?

A) 70-80°F

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B) 120-130°F

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C) 104-108°F

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D) 90-95°F

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102. What’s a difference between heat exhaustion and heat stroke?

A) Heat exhaustion has a rapid, weak pulse

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B) Heat stroke has profuse sweating

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C) Heat exhaustion is fatal

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D) Heat stroke has no pulse

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103. What’s a treatment for heat exhaustion?

A) Give solid food

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B) Apply heat

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C) Move to shade and rehydrate

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D) Elevate legs

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104. What’s a sign of altitude sickness?

A) No fatigue

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B) Steady breathing

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C) Headache and breathlessness

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D) Warm skin

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105. What’s the primary treatment for altitude sickness?

A) Give sugar

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B) Apply cold

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C) Descend rapidly

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D) Ascend higher

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106. What’s a lightning injury treatment?

A) Apply heat

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B) CPR if needed

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C) Ignore burns

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D) Leave patient alone

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107. What’s a risk factor for frostbite?

A) Warm boots

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B) Wet skin

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C) Dry skin

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D) No wind

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108. What’s a sign of severe hypothermia?

A) Warm skin

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B) Steady pulse

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C) Fetal position

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D) Violent shivering

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109. What’s chilblains?

A) Bone fracture

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B) High blood sugar

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C) Painful inflammation from cold

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D) Lung issue

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110. What’s a treatment for submersion in cold water?

A) Apply ice

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B) Leave wet

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C) Insulate and dry

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D) Give alcohol

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111. What causes plant-induced dermatitis?

A) Water

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B) Bacteria

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C) Urushiol

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D) Sunlight

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112. What’s a treatment for poison ivy exposure?

A) Apply mud

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B) Wash with soap immediately

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C) Use hot water

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D) Leave it alone

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113. What’s a sign of a black widow bite?

A) Steady pulse

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B) Muscle cramps

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C) No pain

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D) Clear skin

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114. What’s a treatment for a brown recluse bite?

A) Cut the wound

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B) Apply heat

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C) Clean with soap and water

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D) Leave it open

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115. What’s a sign of a tick bite infection?

A) Warm skin

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B) No swelling

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C) Fever and rash

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D) No pain

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116. How should you remove a tick?

A) Burn it off

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B) Pull steadily with tweezers

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C) Twist it out

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D) Leave it attached

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117. What’s a treatment for an insect sting?

A) Rub with dirt

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B) Apply cold compress

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C) Apply heat

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D) Ignore it

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118. What’s a sign of a venomous snake bite?

A) Clear skin

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B) No swelling

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C) Severe burning and swelling

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D) Slow pulse

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119. What should you NOT do for a snake bite?

A) Evacuate

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B) Immobilize the limb

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C) Cut and suck the wound

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D) Keep the patient calm

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120. What’s the Sawyer Extractor used for?

A) Bandaging

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B) Warming

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C) Suctioning snake bites

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D) Splinting

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121. What’s a feature of pit vipers?

A) Round pupils

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B) No fangs

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C) Triangular head

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D) Soft skin

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122. What’s a treatment for hives?

A) Elevation

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B) Sugar water

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C) Antihistamines

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D) Hot compress

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123. What’s a risk of animal bites?

A) Frostbite

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B) Dehydration

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C) Rabies

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D) Altitude sickness

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124. When should you suspect rabies?

A) After a minor scratch

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B) After 24 hours

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C) After an unprovoked bat bite

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D) After a provoked dog bite

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125. What’s a property of urushiol?

A) Washes off easily after 30 minutes

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B) Found in water

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C) Bonds to skin after 30 minutes

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D) Only affects 10% of people

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Imagine you encounter a patient in a remote setting with no immediate backup. Using what you learned in this course, describe in detail the first three minutes of your response. Explain your thought process, priorities, and actions.

This response will be reviewed and graded after submission.

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